CUSAT SAMPLE PAPER

Actual paper will have following number of questions

  • English
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Mathematics
10 questions
25 questions
25 questions
30 questions

                                                                                 

Q1.  If vectors A, B and C are such that AxB=C, then C is

  • normal to A only.
  • normal to B only.
  • normal to both A and B.
  • neither normal to A nor to B.

Q2. A car accelerates on a straight road from rest to a speed of 50ms-1 in 25s.The distance covered by the car in this time is

  • 1m.
  • 100m.
  • 625m.
  • 1250m.

Q3. On being slightly displaced, if the distance between the centre of gravity of a body and the ground remains unchanged, the body is

  • in stable equilibrium.
  • in neutral equilibrium.
  • in unstable equilibrium.
  • not in equilibrium at all.

Q4. A ball moving to and fro about the lowest point of a smooth hemispherical bowl is able to rise upto a height of 45 cm on either side. Its speed at the lowest point is (g=10ms-2)

  • 0.45ms-1.
  • 3ms-1.
  • 4.5ms-1.
  • 9ms-1.

Q5. The gain in potential energy of a body of masses M raised from the surface of the Earth to a height equal to radius R of the Earth is

  • 2MgR.
  • MgR.
  • MgR/2.
  • MgR/4.

Q6. Two bodies of unequal masses moving with velocities V1 and V2, respectively, have same kinetic energy. The ratio of their linear momenta is

  •  

Q7. For a particle executing uniform circular motion

  • velocity is transverse, acceleration is radial.
  • velocity is radial, acceleration is transverse.
  • both velocity and acceleration are transverse.
  • both velocity and acceleration are radial.

Q8. Consider the Earth moving around the Sun in a circular orbit. Which of the following statements is true?

  • The Earth does some work while moving in its orbit.
  • The Earth does no work while moving in its orbit.
  • The kinetic energy of the Earth changes during the motion.
  • The potential energy of the Earth changes during the motion.

Q9.  In a thermodynamic process, the pressure of a fixed mass of gas is changed in such a manner that the gas releases 20 J of heat and 8J of work is done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas was 30J, the final internal energy is

  • 2 J.
  • 10 J.
  • 18 J.
  • 58 J.

Q10. The lowest possible temperature on the Kelvin scale is 0K. AT this temperature which of the following statements is true?

  • The volume of the gas becomes zero.
  • The pressure of the gas becomes zero.
  • The mass of the gas becomes zero.
  • All the molecular motion ceases.

Q11. The length of a simple pendulum is increased by 44%. Its time period will increases by

  • 10%.
  • 20%.
  • 40%.
  • 44%.

Q12. If two simple harmonic waves of the same frequency are superimposed, the resultant wave is

  • simple harmonic wave of half the frequency.
  • simple harmonic wave of the same frequency.
  • simple harmonic wave of double the frequency.
  • not a simple harmonic wave.

Q13. The electric field inside a charged metallic hollow sphere is

  • zero.
  • same as that on the surface.
  • less than that on the surface.
  • greater than that on the surface.

Q14. An electric charge in uniform motion produces

  • magnetic field only.
  • electric field only.
  • neither electric field nor magnetic field.
  • both electric field  and magnetic field.

Q15. Which of the following statements regarding  image formation is true  for the laws of reflection?

  • they hold for plane mirror only.
  • they hold for convex mirror only.
  • they hold for concave mirror only.
  • they hold for all-plane, convex and concave mirrors.

Q16.  In a double slit interference pattern, the first maxima for infrared light would

  •  be at the same place as that for the green light.
  •  be farther from the center than that for the green light.
  •  be closer to the center than that for the green light .
  • not be formed at all as infrared light does not produce interference pattern.

Q17. After two hours (1/16)th of the initial amount of a radioactive specimen remains undecayed. The half life of the specimen is

  • 15m.
  • 30m.
  • 45m.
  • 1h.

Q18. When a metallic surface is illuminated with a light of frequency ν,  the stopping potential for the photocurrent is 3V. When the same surface is illuminated with  light of frequency ν/2, the stopping potential  becomes  1V. The threshold frequency for the surface is

  • ν
  • ν/3
  • ν/4.
  • ν/5.

Q19. The value of equals

  • –i
  • 1
  • -1
  • i         

Q20. The condition for polynomial equation to be a quadratic is

  • a>0
  • a<0

Q21. If a,b,c are in A.P. then  equals

      
  •  

Q22. The median of the following data 11,29,17,21,13,31,39,19

  • 32
  •  19
  • 21
  •  20

Q23.  Value of is

  • -1
  • 1
  • 2
  • 0

Q24. tan3x is periodic with periodic

  •  
  •  2
  • /2
  • /3

Q25. The coefficient of  in the expansion of is

  • 1
  • n
  •  n

Q26. The function has a stationary point at

  • x=e
  • x=1/e
  • x=1/2
  • x=e+1

Q27.  is equal to

  • log()+c
  •  log()+c
  • - log()+c
  • log(x)+c

Q28. The differential equation satisfied by is

Q29. Three lines px+qy+r=0,qx+ry+p=0 and rx+py+q=0 ae concurrent if

  • p+q+r=0
  • p-q+r=0
  • p+q-r=0
  • 2p+q+r=0

Q30.  

Q31.  The vertex of parabola is

  • (4,7/2)
  • (4,9/2)
  • (9/2,4)
  • (1,0)

Q32.  Which of the following is not an equivalence relation

  •  is an even integer
  •  is an even integer

Q33.  If A and B are two finite sets with cardinality m and n respectively,  then the number of relations from A to B is

  • m+n

Q34.  then k is equal to

  • -2log5
  • -2/log5
  • 2log5
  • -1/2(log5)

Q35.  The probability that a leap year will have 53 Fridays or 53 Saturdays is

  • 2/7
  • 3/7
  • 4/7/
  • 1/7

Q36. If P(A+B)=5/6, , the P(A) is equal to

  • 2/3
  • 1/3
  • ½
  • 2/5

Q37. For the process: Dry ice →CO2(g)

  • ∆H is +ve ∆S is –ve
  • Both ∆H and ∆S are negative
  • Both ∆H and ∆S are positive
  • ∆H is –ve whereas ∆S is +ve

Q38. The oxide which possesses electrical conductivity is:

  • V2O5
  • CrO2
  • NiO       
  • MnO2

Q39. In the following phase of orbitals, the larger effective nuclear charge will be experienced by

  • I. 2s and 3s              II. 4d and 4f        III. 3d and 3p
  • 2s, 4d, 3d
  • 3s, 4f, 3p
  • 2s, 4f, 3d
  • 2s, 4d, 3p

Q40. Sulphuric acid molecules contains

  • Only covalent bonds
  • Covalent ɛ’ ionic bonds
  • Covalent  ɛ’ coordinate bonds
  • Covalent ionic and coordinate bonds

Q41. A first order reaction is half completed in 45 minutes. How long does it need for 99.9% of reaction to be completed?

  • 20 hrs   
  • 10 hrs
  • 7 hrs
  • 5 hrs

Q42. The Van’t Hoff Factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is.

  • 91.3%
  • 87 %
  • 100 %
  • 74 %

Q43. Standard Eo of the half cell Fe/Fe2+ is 0.44V and Standard Eo of the half cell Cu/Cu2+  is -0.32V then:

  • Cu oxidises Fe2+ ion
  • Cu2+ oxidises Fe
  • Cu reduces Fe2+ ion
  • Cu2+ reduces Fe

Q44. Which one of the following arrangements of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole moments?

  • BF3 > NF3 >NH3
  • NF3 > BF3 > NH3
  • NH3 > BF3 > NF3
  • NH3 > NF3 > BF3

Q45. The O-O bond length in ozone is:

  • 1.27o A
  • 1.21o A
  • 1.34o A
  • 1.48o A

Q46. Which type of hybridization is involved in XeF4 and what is its shape?

  • d2sp3 and octahedral
  • sp3 and tetrahedral
  • sp3d2 and square planar
  • dsp2 and square planar

Q47. Titanium shows magnetic moment of 1.73 B.M. in its compound. What is the oxidation number of Ti in its compound?

  • +1
  • +4
  • +3
  • +2

Q48. Which of the following transition elements exhibit +8 oxidation states

  • Cu, Zn
  • Ru, Os
  • Ag, Au
  • Cu,Cr

Q49. Chloroform for anesthetic purposes is tested for its purity with the reagent:

  • Lead nitrate
  • Mercuric chloride
  • Silver nitrate
  • Ammonical Cu2 Cl2

Q50. Aniline on heating with Conc. HNO3  and Conc. H2SO4  mixture yields:

  • O- and p- nitroanilines
  • P-nitro anilines
  • A Black tarry matter
  • O- nitroanilines

Q51. Which of the following reagents is useful is separating aniline form a mixture of aniline and nitrobenzene?

  • Aqueous NaOH
  • H2O
  • Aqueous NaHCO3
  • Aqueous HCl

Q52. Identify the compound ‘C’ in the sequence CH3CNA B  C

  • CH3COOH
  • CH3CH2NHOH
  • CH3CONH2
  • CH3CHO

Q53. Table sugar is  a

  • Disacchoride of D-glucose and D- fructose
  • A monosaccharide
  • D- glucose
  • Disaccharide of two glucose units

Q54. A medicine which promotes secretion of urine is called

  • Diuretic
  • Antipyretic
  • Analgesic
  • Sedative

Tick the option that is close in meaning to the given expression

Q55. essay

  • to try
  • to resign
  • to write 
  • to propose

Q56.  explicit

  • inflexible
  • vague
  • clear
  • already quoted

Choose the option that will complete the sentence

Q57. My intention is ____________ my project by June.

  • finishing
  • finished
  • to finish
  • finish

Q58. The argument is centred _______ whether or not to lower the age limit.

  • about 
  • on
  • over 
  • towards

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow by choosing the right option

Vancouver is one of the world’s food capitals, boasting many high quality dining experiences. With so many culinary traditions to draw upon, eating out in Vancouver is a varied and relatively inexpensive affair. The city is obsessed with its restaurants, and locals make a regular habit of trying new venues to wine and dine. As the tour guide pointed out, there is not a single person walking on the streets of Vancouver without a big mug of coffee or something to munch on.

Q59. Which of the following is not a reason for the people of Vancouver to eat out?

  • the city has many restaurants
  • the food is not very costly
  • people love eating
  • people like to spend money on food

Q60. Why does Vancouver offer a variety of food?

  • its restaurants prepare dishes from different cultures
  • the country has its distinct style of cooking
  • the restaurants keep mixing new dishes
  • the people need different foods at different times